Re: Faraday paradox in non-circular form

On Jul 9, 1:34 pm, phil-news-nos...@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
 wrote:

> My understanding of the homopolar generator is that the entire disk
would be
> under the influence of a uniform magnetic field that, from the point of
any
> particle of the rotating disk, is not changing in intensity (so as to
not be
> influenced by Faraday's law of induction which would apply when the
field is
> changing).  The paradox is that when the disk is rotating, it does not
matter
> if the magnet(s) creating the field are rotating with the disk or not
(or in
> any other way including in the opposite direction).

This is correct. The "paradox" comes from the question of whether the
magnetic field rotates with the magnets or not.  BOTH assumptions give
the SAME answer!  If the magnets are fixed and the disk rotates,
Lorentz forces induce an emf in the moving disk.  However, if the
magnets are attached to the disk and spun, now there is no relative
motion between the magnetic field and disk so no induction can occur
there. BUT, if the magnetic field is assumed to rotate with the
magnets, then that would produce an emf in the REST OF THE WIRES GOING
TO THE METER, that can be shown identical to the EMF in the first case
of the rotating disk with fixed magnets. No solution to this paradox
seems possible using wire loops.

The proposed research is to measure the induced Lorentz field of a
spinning magnet using electrostatic methods. That gets around the
"loop" induction problems. As far as I know nobody has done this that
we've heard about.

Unfortunately, Phil, you've already blocked me so we have nothing to
say to each other on this topic.

Benj