Re: How does a Faraday disk really work?

In article 
<a54b9a58-5c3f-42db-8baa-9ba93b4c58bf@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>,
 blackhead <larryharson@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> wrote:

> 
> But the Lorentz Law is a special case of Faraday's Law in differential
> form when B is time independent. I don't understand where you're
> getting this idea from that Maxwell's equations aren't sufficient to
> explain the Faraday generator.
> 
> Title:
>  A Simple Proof that the Lorentz Force, Law Implied Faraday's Law of
> Induction, when B is Time Independent
> 
> http://adsabs.harvard.edu/abs/1973AmJPh..41..713D
> 
> 
> Deriving the Lorentz force equation from Maxwellapos;s equations
>
http://ieeexplore.ieee.org/Xplore/login.jsp?url=/iel5/7814/21481/00995632.pdf?
> temp=x

The only possible Maxwell equation in differential form that describes 
Faraday induction must be:

curl E = -�B/�t  {partial of B wrt t if symbols don't show}

This seems useless if B does not vary with time.

The references also seem of little value. I might be able to dig up the 
Harvard reference at a local university library. Its title is so 
ungrammatical as to be of no value.

Even though I am an IEEE member, I am not about to spend the money for a 
subscription.

It seems clear to me that special relativity is the easy approach to 
flux "cutting." I just do not see flux cutting arising from the Maxwell 
equation. I am beginning to believe that using the Lorentz force as a 
law by itself is a back road to describe relativity.

Where do we go from here?

Bill